I've heard this and think it's probably folk etymology.  The OED
certainly has no evidence associating "rule of thumb" with
wife-beating.  The first citation in 1697--well past any "medieval"
rules about sticks.  And none of the citations has any reference that
could be associated with wife beating.  All relate to the notion of a
rule that is based on practice rather than theory.

However, my feeling is that enough people have heard of this folk
etymology to be offended by it. When I used the term in passing in
class, people objected. They may be wrong, but they are offended.
And telling them  that they are wrong does not make them less
offended.

Let me tell you about my defence the name of "Picnic Day" (a campus
tradition) some time.  It wasn't pretty.

KMW


>A reader of "Understanding English Grammar'" has asked Bob Funk, my
>co-author, and me to delete all references to "rules of thumb" in our
>book.  It came as a surprise to both of us that the term was
>offensive.  It turns out, however, that the so-called rule has its
>origin in the size of the stick that a husband could use when he beat
>his wife!  I'm not sure how long ago that rule applied in  its
>original state; and I'm also not convinced that anyone using the term
>makes that connection.  I do see the term frequently in books like
>ours.
>
>I'd appreciate any opinions as to the merits of this objection.
>
>Martha
>
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