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From:
"Castilleja, Janet" <[log in to unmask]>
Reply To:
Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar <[log in to unmask]>
Date:
Wed, 9 Apr 2008 20:17:21 -0700
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I think there has been discussion about this on this list before.  The way that I learned this, most of what are sometimes called participle and infinitive phrases are actually non-finite clauses.  The idea is that if there are other clause elements present in addition to the non-finite verb, you actually have a reduced or non-finite clause.  So if the non-finite verb has a subject, object complement, etcetera, it is a reduced clause.  If it doesn't, it is a phrase.
 
To know him is to love him.  'him' is the object of 'love,' so 'to know him' is a reduced clause. 
Running is good for you.  'Running' has no clause elements attached, so it is a participle phrase, or in this case, a gerund, as some of us remember.
 
This analysis usually works for me, because I  can account for the other words in the structure.  I think ( and now I suppose somebody is going to tell me what an idiot I am) that this grew out of constituent analysis and functional grammar, in contrast to generative grammar.  As I understand it, in generative grammar almost everything is a phrase.  Anyway, I've been analyzing clauses this way for a long time.
 
Janet

________________________________

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar on behalf of Nancy Tuten
Sent: Wed 4/9/2008 4:46 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: clauses vs. phrases



I see what you mean by the difference between "finite" and "infinite." What I am curious about is the notion that these constructions are *clauses* rather than *phrases*. In other words, I am questioning my definition of a clause. The construction "[to] grow tall" looks like an infinitive *phrase* to me, not a *clause* at all. 

 

Nancy 

 

Nancy L. Tuten, PhD

Professor of English

Director of the Writing-across-the-Curriculum Program

Columbia College

Columbia, South Carolina

[log in to unmask] <mailto:[log in to unmask]> 

803-786-3706

 

 

________________________________

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Castilleja, Janet
Sent: Wednesday, April 09, 2008 7:17 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: Odd sentence

 

Yes, that's the definition.  However, the infinitive isn't always marked, and the clauses can have subjects.  That makes them harder to recognize.

 

For example, in a sentence like this ' Vitamins make children grow tall,'  grow is non-finite.  You can tell because you can't put it in the past tense. * Vitamins made children grew tall. It doesn't work.  Also, if you substitute a pronoun for the subject, it turns out to be an object pronoun. 

 

Vitamins make them grow tall.  * Vitamins make they grow tall. That doesn't work either.

 

In my sentence, the problem is that when I try to test the troublesome clause by changing the tense, it seems to change the meaning quite a bit.

 

When they reached the coast of Asia   Minor, they insisted that the Greek

colonies of Lydia recognized the Persian Kings as their over- Lords and paid

them a stipulated tax.

 

It makes it sound as though it had already happened but I don't think that is what the sentence means.

 

Or if I try to change the person:

 

When they reached the coast of Asia   Minor, they insisted that the Greek

colony of Lydia recognizes the Persian Kings as their over- Lords and pays

them a stipulated tax.

 

It's the same.  It means it is already happening.

 

Janet

 

-----Original Message-----
From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Nancy Tuten
Sent: Wednesday, April 09, 2008 3:51 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: Odd sentence

 

I had never heard the terms "finite" and "nonfinite clauses," so I looked

them up. The examples I found actually look like infinitive and participle

*phrases* to me, not clauses at all. 

 

Is this just another instance where we get tangled up in terminology upon

which we can't agree on the definition?  

 

Here is what I read: 

 

*********************

"Non-finite clauses are built around verbs that do not have tense or

modality--verbs that are not sentence verb phrases.  These are clauses with

(1) infinitives and (2) participles (both -ed and -ing).  

  

Infinitive Clause: 1. He wondered why he had forsaken physics *to study

human culture in the first place*.

 

Present Participle Clause: 2.*Entering the world of the Yanomamo*, the

anthropologist experienced culture shock.

 

Past Participle Clause: 3. *Confused by the differences between his culture

and theirs*, he wanted to flee and return home.

*********************

 

As always, I'm looking forward to being humbled and to learning something

new . . . 

 

Nancy

 

 

Nancy L. Tuten, PhD

Professor of English

Director of the Writing-across-the-Curriculum Program

Columbia College

Columbia, South Carolina

[log in to unmask]

803-786-3706

 

 

 

-----Original Message-----

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar

[mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Castilleja, Janet

Sent: Wednesday, April 09, 2008 5:49 PM

To: [log in to unmask]

Subject: Odd sentence

 

Hi

 

What do you folks make of this sentence?  Is the clause that begins 'that

the Greek colonies..." finite or non-finite?  I think it is non-finite, but

I'm wavering a little. 

 

 

When they reached the coast of Asia   Minor, they insisted that the Greek

colonies of Lydia recognize the Persian Kings as their over- Lords and pay

them a stipulated tax.

 

Thanks

 

Janet Castilleja

Heritage University

 

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