In effect, the preposition is elliptical with all indirect objects.
He gave me the tickets.
He gave (to) me the tickets.
He gave the tickets to me.
When we diagram indirect objects with traditional R&K diagrams, we suggest
that the preposition is part of the syntax by putting the IO in the slot
where the object of a prepositional phrase would go and by leaving the
preposition slot blank.
Since I teach my students to ask themselves "to whom" or "for whom" when
trying to find the indirect object, I could hardly fault them for calling
"to me" an indirect object in Ed's sentence.
My textbook is not with me, but I'm almost certain that Martha Kolln has a
footnote on this issue in _Understanding English Grammar_. She says, in
essence, that some grammarians would regard such a prepositional phrase as
an indirect object while others would not. In the context of her book, it is
regarded as such. (That is, this would be a pattern VIII sentence--one with
a direct object and an indirect object.)
Nancy
Nancy L. Tuten, PhD
Professor of English
Director of the Writing-across-the-Curriculum Program
Columbia College
Columbia, South Carolina
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803-786-3706
-----Original Message-----
From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar
[mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of James Bear
Sent: Tuesday, November 28, 2006 12:35 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: Prepositional phrase as an indirect object
I'd go with an adverbial prepositional phrase. 'To me' certainly
modifies 'hit', does it not? Is it different than "Jack hit the ball
quickly?"
Edward Vavra wrote:
> I was recently asked about "to me" in the sentence "Jack hit the
> ball to me." Is "to me" an adverbial prepositional phrase, or can it
> be considered a prepositional phrase that functions as an indirect
> object, i.e., as a noun? My question is--Do members of this list agree
> on one or the other explanation, or is their disagreement?
> Thanks,
> Ed
>
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--
James Sebastian Bear
Montpelier Public School
www.montpelier.k12.nd.us/classroom.html
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