Using the antecedent after the pronoun in this case sounds better because in the introductory phrase, the "antecedent" is really an determiner or adjective.  I remember a discussion on the list serve a few months ago attempting to figure out if a determiner can serve as an antecedent for a pronoun.  Your example shows that if another possible antecedent is present (Beowulf, in this case) using a determiner as an antecedent can cause some confusion or at least a feeling that something isn't quite right.
Jeanne Rodgers
CSU, Sacramento
----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Jane Saral" <[log in to unmask]>
To: <[log in to unmask]>
Sent: Tuesday, October 18, 2005 10:28 AM
Subject: Syntax question


> So I have a question--
> 
> A student wrote the following sentence:
> 
> In Hrothgar's speech to Beowulf, he gives warning of the corruption of
> the desire for fame.
> 
> Can anyone explain why it sounds better to say instead:
> 
> In his speech to Beowulf, Hrothgar gives warning of...
> 
> I can explain that sometimes the antecedent will follow rather than
> precede a pronoun, but that doesn't address why it sounds/is preferable
> in this case. 
> 
> Jane Saral
> Atlanta, GA
> 
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