Peter,

This is one of the problems with using sample sentences in isolation.  Properly in constructing such an argument I should find examples in context where the interpretation will be strongly conditioned by the discourse contexts.  This is one of the strengths of corpus based studies and the tools they use.  They can provide real examples and the contexts they originally occurred in.

The interpretations you suggest are certain plausible, but they presuppose a context that we don't share.  I would argue that such interpretations bring information to the examples that goes beyond what's there grammatically.  And that's fine, but it's the problem with using made-up context-free examples.

Herb


-----Original Message-----
From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar on behalf of Peter Adams
Sent: Wed 11/29/2006 7:41 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: Prepositional phrase as an indirect object
 

In a message dated 11/28/06 2:42:39 PM, [log in to unmask] writes:


> They are pragmatically different.  In "Jack hit the ball to me", "to me" 
> is new information or focus.  In "Jack hit me the ball", "the ball" is 
> focus.  They would be used in different contexts.  Of course focus can also be 
> shifted with intonation, but I'm not assuming that here.  Analytically the two 
> mean the same thing, but functionally they are quite different.
> 

Actually, I detect some difference in meaning here.   "Jack hit the ball to 
me" seems to be a statement of where Jack hit the ball.   "Jack hit me the 
ball" seems to me to suggest more intention on Jack's part.   More like I needed 
some practice out there at shortstop so Jack hit me a few grounders.

If I'm right about the subtle difference in meaning, then, of course, that 
would push me toward "to me" as adverbial pp and "hit me the ball" as indirect 
o.



Peter Adams

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