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July 2001

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Subject:
From:
Bob Yates <[log in to unmask]>
Reply To:
Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar <[log in to unmask]>
Date:
Thu, 19 Jul 2001 19:02:54 -0500
Content-Type:
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Jeff Glauner gave a good explanation to the question, but I want to suggest how
Jennifer
can be more certain about her "feeling."

"Rabinowitz, Jennifer" wrote:
> Would you say "There's nothing between you and me" or "There's nothing
> between you and I."  I think that it should be "you and me," but I've always
> been lousy at grammar and so my sinking, defeatist feeling is that I'm
> wrong, wrong, wrong.

English has a distinction between subject pronouns and object pronouns.

Subject pronouns: I, you, he, she, it, we, they
Object pronouns: me, you, him, her, it, us, them.

The problem is that in conversation many dialects of English allow  (1)

1) Him and me went to the movies.

This is non-standard so we are taught that is it is always

2) He and I went to the movies.

Corrections like (2) make us think that him and me or you and me is never right.
We need a way
to figure when the object pronouns are correct.  I think in ALL dialects of
American English there is know important non-standard use of we and us.  This is
relevant for confirming a "feeling."

Would you say (3) or (4)?

3) between we
4) between us

Because the answer is "us," then the pronouns which are objects of between must be
object pronouns.

Try this test the next time you have a question about which pronoun case in
English.

Bob Yates

PS.  I am aware of the problem with whether one SHOULD say "it is we" or "it is
us."  a

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