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September 2004

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From:
"Stahlke, Herbert F.W." <[log in to unmask]>
Reply To:
Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar <[log in to unmask]>
Date:
Mon, 20 Sep 2004 20:53:58 -0500
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IO and DO are areas where the failure to distinguish between form and function can really cause problems.  As a functional relationship, IO is recipient, target, etc.  Object is difficult to define because precisely how it is object depends the meaning of the verb.  That's why it's often defined as the argument most directly effected by the action of the verb, admittedly a vague and imprecise definition, as notional definitions inevitably are.  Formally, IOs precede DOs and PPs follow DOs.  The PP in these cases has PP structure but IO function, and because of its IO function it is usually a complement, that is, an obligatory constituent, rather than a modifier, an optional constituent.  If you don't distinguish between structure and function, it's very hard to explain the equivalence of V IO DO and corresponding V DO PP constructions.  Of course, English messes things up as usual by having verbs that allow only V IO DO or only V DO PP.

Herb  



Hi,
 
I was browsing the web yesterday trying to brainstorm new ways to teach IOs and DOs as I want to discuss sentence patterns with my students (with an eye to varying them - my kids tend to pick one and stick to it like barnacles!!), when I found several sites that contradicted my understanding of IOs.
 
Repeatedly prepositional phrases were pointed to as examples of IOs as in "Jim threw the ball to Sue," where "to Sue" is cited as the IO.  I looked it up in Cambridge and it seems to say that this is still wrong (which is what I remembered).  However, I freely admit that I have to have a quiet room and at least three intermediate grammar texts to successfully navigate Cambridge, so I may not be decoding it correctly.
 
Can anyone help me out?  Has this changed? Can the IO be a prep. phrase?
 
Thanks,
Gretchen
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