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From:
Linda Di Desidero <[log in to unmask]>
Reply To:
Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar <[log in to unmask]>
Date:
Tue, 10 Jun 2008 08:20:59 -0400
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Morphological/ derivational/ rhetorical processes aside, I think that in many grammar classes it is enough to know that "best" functions as an adjective most of the time, but can also be used as a noun, verb, etc.  Teaching people to look at the context (or the sentence frame) when trying to figure out the grammatical category is an important skill.
 
The ADJECTIVE noun: The best one
The NOUN: The best will go on.
He VERB-ed it.: He bested the man.
 
 
 
Linda Di Desidero, Ph.D.
Acting Director, Communication Studies & Professional Writing
University of Maryland University College
3501 University Boulevard, East
Adelphi, MD 20783

________________________________

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar on behalf of Paul E. Doniger
Sent: Mon 6/9/2008 11:31 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: Morphology



This is an example of a very common rhetorical device, anthimeria (the substitution of one part of speech for another). Our dear friend Will Shakespeare does it often. Examples of adjectives used as nouns abound -- e.g., "in few" (Hamlet; The Tempest), "I'll make division of my present ( Twelfth Night: 'present' is here the adjective meaning 'existing now', not the noun meaning 'gift'), and "My false o'erways your true" (Measure for Measure). We do this sort of thing constantly.

 

Paul D.



----- Original Message ----
From: Linda Di Desidero <[log in to unmask]>
To: [log in to unmask]
Sent: Monday, June 9, 2008 5:12:35 PM
Subject: Re: Morphology


Janet: "We somehow always seem to stumble on a sentence like this right after I've discussed comparatives and modifiers."
 
How convenient in demonstrating the creative aspects of human language--I think it's great that you stumble on these counter-examples! If nothing else, it takes the edge off of the "correctness mentality" that so many students (and teachers) seem to have. I think it can make the study of grammar much less intimidating to know that there aren't always absolute answers to all questions--or at least that a word doesn't only fit in a single grammatical category, and that category can also depend on function/use (not just lexical semantics).
 
Linda
 
 

----------------------------------------------------- 

Linda Di Desidero, Ph.D.

Acting Director, Communication Studies & Professional Writing

Communication, Arts, and Humanities

University of Maryland University College 

3501 University Boulevard East

Adelphi, MD   20783-8083

 

(240) 582-2830 (department)

(240) 582-2928 (office)

(240) 582-2993 (fax)

 

________________________________

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Castilleja, Janet
Sent: Monday, June 09, 2008 1:28 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: Morphology



Here is a sentence I always struggle with when I'm trying to explain sentence structure to students: the best is yet to come.  'best' seems so clearly to be an adjective and yet is so clearly functioning as a noun would function.  We somehow always seem to stumble on a sentence like this right after I've discussed comparatives and modifiers.

 

Janet Castilleja

 

-----Original Message-----
From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Spruiell, William C
Sent: Friday, May 30, 2008 3:13 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: Morphology

 

Natalie,

 

The "shift vs. ellipsis" argument  with examples like "Hey beautiful,"

as well as more general "shift vs. zero-affixation" arguments, tend to

be decided by particular linguists on the basis of other positions

they've adopted in their theories -- in other words, I don't think it's

possible to step back and look at "linguistics in general" and give a

"right" decision on any of those. Those cases don't give analysts any

empirical traction to work with, basically, and in the absence of any

way to falsify either of the two propositions involved ("there's nothing

there" vs. "there's a nothing there"), we just fall back on internal

consistency. I suppose it's theoretically possible to resolve the issue

if we ever get to the point where we can verify whether there is or

isn't a specific subassembly of neurons that fire off whenever a test

subject processes an example in which there's a putative gap, but given

the number of random factors involved, I don't know if that will ever

become feasible.

 

Having said that, the way I would approach "Hey beautiful" is to treat

"beautiful" as a deadjectival noun, partly because so many expressions

occur that are similar but have an unambiguous noun in the second

position (e.g. "Hey dude," "hey knucklehead") that I can't see

maintaining the notion that "beautiful" is SO tied to adjectival

function that it has to constitute an exception in that use (apologies

for the constant barrage of different forms of "that"!). Such an

approach does, however, leave me with a bit of a problem if someone uses

an expression like "Hey dearest," since the superlative suffix is very

adjective-y. 

 

 

Bill Spruiell

Dept. of English

Central Michigan University

 

-----Original Message-----

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar

[mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Natalie Gerber

Sent: Friday, May 30, 2008 9:10 AM

To: [log in to unmask]

Subject: Re: Morphology

 

Bill and all,

 

Thank you for catching and for so gently correcting my erroneous

example. Would you suggest a reading that clarifies why or how the

morphological analysis of functional shift differs from zero affixation

with inflectional morphemes? On a slightly different topic, too, how

would you analyze an example in which an adjective stands in for a noun,

as in Hey, beautiful! Would this be considered an instance of functional

shift or rather an instance in which an element is understood to be

gapped (if that's the right parlance), i.e. the noun.

 

All best,

Natalie Gerber

 

________________________________

 

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar on behalf of

Spruiell, William C

Sent: Thu 5/29/2008 5:52 PM

To: [log in to unmask]

Subject: Re: Morphology

 

 

 

I've seen some accounts that appear to be treating all "affixless

category-changing derivation" as zero-affixation -- but it's because of

a theoretical position that forces that kind of analysis. If I remember

correctly (with an even bigger *if* than is usual), there are approaches

that mandate that the grammatical category of a complex element be that

of its head, even in morphology. Thus, a deverbal noun (for example) has

to have a nominal "head." With normal category-shifting affixes, such

approaches can treat the affix as the head, so "motion" has "-tion" as a

head, and "move" governed by it. With functional conversion, the zero

has to "be" there so it can act as a head with a grammatical category.

 

Zero elements make me skittish -- they're too easy to "cheat" with in

theory construction -- so I particularly like the approach Herb lays

out, where they're limited to exception cases in paradigms where other

words would have affixes. I'm even happier just to think of them as

notational conventions, since (to mangle a classic line) I'm not sure

how one would establish whether or not there's any "there" there.

 

Bill Spruiell

Dept. of English

Central Michigan University

 

 

 

 

 

-----Original Message-----

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar

[mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of STAHLKE, HERBERT F

Sent: Thursday, May 29, 2008 2:47 PM

To: [log in to unmask]

Subject: Re: Morphology

 

Zero affixation is different from functional shift, as Natalie's example

suggests.  The plural of "deer" is "deer."  That would be considered

zero affixation, where some, usually ill-defned, subset of a word class

does not take the expected suffix.  Usually zero suffixation is

inflectional, as with this plural example.  Functional shift is a

derivational process.  In a language like English where there is so much

inflectional morphology and so little of it regular, there is no

expected suffix for changing a word from a noun to a verb, or from any

category to any other category, and so the terms "functional shift,"

"zero derivation," and "conversion" are ways of labeling changes in word

class that have no effect on stem form.

 

Herb

________________________________________

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar

[[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Natalie Gerber

[[log in to unmask]]

Sent: May 29, 2008 2:01 PM

To: [log in to unmask]

Subject: Re: Morphology

 

Just to second Kathleen's note. What I've read on morphology does

consider functional shift to be a morphological change and records this

by calling such changes as zero affix, which accounts for the fact that,

e.g., in irregular noun plurals there is no -s, or derivational affix

attached.

 

John, if it's of interest, I can send a short lesson on morphology

created by a Ph.D. in linguistics that will help address this.

 

Natalie Gerber

SUNY Fredonia

 

________________________________

 

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar on behalf of Kathleen

M. Ward

Sent: Thu 5/29/2008 11:10 AM

To: [log in to unmask]

Subject: Re: Morphology

 

 

My speciality is certainly not morphology, but all the books I've read

call this kind of "derivation without change in form" a morphological

change that is variously called "conversion," "functional shift," or

"zero-morph derivation.

 

Kathleen M. Ward

UC Davis

 

On May 29, 2008, at 7:34 AM, John Crow wrote:

 

 

        If a word changes function but does not change form, is that

considered to be a morphological change?  For example, rich, normally

considered to be an adjective, can easily function as a noun (the rich).

If it becomes an adverb (richly), morphology is obviously involved here.

What about the adjective-to-noun shift?

 

        Thanks,

        John

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