"hit" as a ditransitive verb licenses an indirect object.  Whether that
IO shows up post-verbally or after the DO is a matter, in part, of
whether it's new or old information.  But part of the confusion is that
we use IO both functionally and structurally.  Functionally "to me" is
the patient, not an adverb.  Structurally whether it's an adverb depends
on whether it behaves like an adverb.  

We can say "(intentionally) Jack (intentionally) hit the ball
(intentionally) to me (intentionally)," that is, the manner adverb can
occur in any of those four positions.  "To me" doesn't have the same
mobility because it's a complement of "hit" rather than a modifier.
This suggests that it's not adverbial, at least not in the same sense
that "intentionally" is.

Herb


I'd go with an adverbial prepositional phrase.  'To me' certainly 
modifies 'hit', does it not?  Is it different than "Jack hit the ball 
quickly?" 

Edward Vavra wrote:
>     I was recently asked about "to me" in the sentence "Jack hit the 
> ball to me." Is "to me" an adverbial prepositional phrase, or can it 
> be considered a prepositional phrase that functions as an indirect 
> object, i.e., as a noun? My question is--Do members of this list agree

> on one or the other explanation, or is their disagreement?
> Thanks,
> Ed
>
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-- 

James Sebastian Bear
Montpelier Public School
www.montpelier.k12.nd.us/classroom.html

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