Jed,
Modal verbs are messy because they appear
to have past tenses, may/might, can/could, will/would, shall/should. “Must”
itself is originally a past subjunctive form, which is why it has not past
tense form in Modern English. However, this apparent tense marking is
misleading. There are only a few conditions under which their dental
preterit (a term for the past tense in –d/-t that is common to the
Germanic languages, actually marks past tense. The most common of these
is in a sequence of tenses construction. Compare
Jack says that he will run down the hill
with a bucket of water.
Jack said that he would run down the hill
with a bucket of water.
The past tense of the dependent clause agrees
with the past tense of the main clause. We can say the sentence with “will”
in the dependent clause, but it’s meaning will be slightly different.
Other than sequence of tenses, the dental preterits
have come to behave like separate modals that only look morphologically related
to the base stems.
Further, modals tend to fall into two
large semantic categories of usage, what’s called “root” or “deontic”
and what’s called “epistemic”. The deontic meaning comes
closer to the historical meanings of the words. For example,
Jack may run down the hill.
can be interpreted deontically, meaning
that he has permission. It can also be interpreted epistemically, meaning
that his running down the hill is a possibility. Usually, deontic uses
have truth value, that is, they can be shown to be true of false. If Jack
says he “may”, that he has permission, he may or may not be telling
the truth. If someone says “may” meaning that it’s a
possibility, the statement cannot be said to be true or false because its
irrealis, that is, it states an unfulfilled condition.
Because of these different things that
modals do, they are treated separately from main verbs. They don’t,
in fact, have tense marking, except in the very restricted way I described, and
they, when epistemic, have to do with whether or not the proposition has truth
value and the conditions under which it might. They also express the
speaker’s attitude towards the proposition. They differ
syntactically in that they cannot be preceded by a negative. Main verbs
can’t be followed by a negative; any negative must follow an earlier
auxiliary verb, and modals fit into this pattern syntactically. They also
invert with the subject in questions and get copied to the end in tag
questions. Main verbs don’t do these things.
Syntacticians have come up with some
clever ways of handling these facts, but I’ll let someone else address
that.
Herb
From:
Sent: Wednesday, March 29, 2006
8:55 AM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Question about modal
verbs
Hi all,
I have another question that has come out of some recent
class discussions. Perhaps someone can help me out.
My question is this: are modal verbs finite (carrying
grammatical tense) even though they are not inflected or marked in any way to
show that tense? Do syntacticians (sp?) consider the tense to be there (perhaps
marked with some kind of abstract zero morpheme) even though we can't see it?
I've always read (and it makes sense with most examples) that the first verb in
a verb string is the finite one, and since modals appear first in the verb
string (or in my Southern grammar, appear first, second, or even third in a
string of modals) then they must be finite!?
Thanks for any help you can offer on this -- I've checked
several references only to get very ambiguous answers.
Jed
*****************************************************************
John (Jed)
E. Dews
Instructor, Undergraduate Linguistics
MA-TESOL/Applied Linguistics Program
Educator, Secondary English Language Arts
English Department, 208 Rowand-Johnson Hall (Office)
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