Peter,

I haven't read into the history of punctuation in a long time. But I think the "his" story has little or no reality. Here is the wikipedia.com explanation:

Despite the above, the English possessive did originate in a genitive case. In Old English, a common singular genitive ending was -es. The apostrophe in the modern possessive marker is in fact an indicator of the e that is "missing" from the Old English morphology. . . .

The 18th century explanation that the apostrophe might replace a genitive pronoun, as in "the king's horse" being a shortened form of "the king, his horse", is erroneous (a construction which actually occurs in German dialects and has replaced the genitive there, together with the "of" construction that also exists in English).

Ain't wikipedia great?

Max

I seem to remember reading somewhere that the "'s" was actually a contraction
for "his."   I think when a person who doesn't write makes a mark on a
document, we write undert it "John Doe his mark."   This is the "his" that is now
contracted into "'s."   Any truth to this?



Peter Adams

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<HTML><FONT FACE=3Darial,helvetica><HTML><FONT COLOR=3D"#000000" FACE=3D"Gen=
eva" FAMILY=3D"SANSSERIF" SIZE=3D"2">I seem to remember reading somewhere th=
at the "'s" was actually a contraction for "his."&nbsp;  I think when a pers=
on who doesn't write makes a mark on a document, we write undert it "John Do=
e his mark."&nbsp;  This is the "his" that is now contracted into "'s."&nbsp=
;  Any truth to this?<BR>
<BR>
<BR>
<BR>
Peter Adams<BR>
</FONT><FONT COLOR=3D"#000000" FACE=3D"Geneva" FAMILY=3D"SANSSERIF" SIZE=3D"=
2"></FONT></HTML>
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<p>
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