I was also taught to form a possessive by putting the apostrophe after an s
sound, but here's what the 1957 Strunk and White has to say:
"Form the possessive singular of nouns by adding 's. Follow this rule
whatever the final consonant. Thus write, 'Charles's friend' ." and so
forth. S&W do make an exception for ancient proper names (for example,
Jesus' sake, or for conscience' or for righteousness' sake). They do an end
run around Moses and Isis, recommending that the writer replace them with
"the laws of Moses" or "the temple of Isis."
I was taught in the 60s, which meant that my teachers may have learned from
an even more antique source that S&W 1957.
Kathleen
_____
From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar
[mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Stahlke, Herbert F.W.
Sent: Tuesday, June 06, 2006 8:51 AM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: Possessive form
Nancy,
Thanks for checking sources on the rule Paul cited. I was taught as he was,
to use only the apostrophe after a singular noun ending in an /s/ (note, not
an <s>, that is, the sound, not the letter). I have seen the -'s in that
environment more frequently, so I'm wondering when the change took place in
the handbooks. It would be interesting to look at earlier editions to see
if the advice changes.
Herb
_____
From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar
[mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Nancy Tuten
Sent: Monday, June 05, 2006 11:11 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: Possessive form
Thanks for sharing that article, Paul.
I found one point odd, though: the authors suggest that grammarians widely
favor putting only the apostrophe (and not an additional "s") after singular
nouns that end in "s." Although I run into people in my business writing
seminars frequently who have been taught that rule, it is not espoused by
Chicago, MLA, or APA. In fact, until tonight, I had been unable to find it
in print anywhere. Those three very reputable style guides (and a host of
others) prescribe putting the apostrophe and an additional "s" after all
singular nouns, whether they end in "s" or not.
We can have fun debating the merits of such rules, but what do you tell your
students to do when they ask? I usually resort to explaining the whole
notion of style guides and differences among disciplines, but first- and
second-year students glaze over.
Nancy
Nancy L. Tuten, PhD
Professor of English
Director of the Writing-across-the-Curriculum Program
Columbia College
Columbia, South Carolina
[log in to unmask]
803-786-3706
_____
From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar
[mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Paul E. Doniger
Sent: Monday, June 05, 2006 9:52 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: Possessive form
Of course, life is probably more complicated than Wikipedia will allow. I
believe that the history of the apostrophe as apossessive marker is also
more complex. You might want to check out the following paper:
http://www.american.edu/tesol/wpkernodlecavella.pdf
I sheds some light, or rather thins out some fo the shadow, on this history.
More to the point, I think, is the question of what's happening to the
apostrophe now. It seems to me that it's dying a slow, agonizing death! I
for one will miss it (of course. Bernard Shaw ignored it, and no one seems
to think the less of him because of that!).
Paul D.
----- Original Message ----
From: Max Morenberg <[log in to unmask]>
To: [log in to unmask]
Sent: Monday, June 5, 2006 9:16:26 PM
Subject: Re: Possessive form
Peter,
I haven't read into the history of punctuation in a long time. But I think
the "his" story has little or no reality. Here is the wikipedia.com
explanation:
Despite the above, the English possessive did originate in a genitive case.
In Old English, a common singular genitive ending was -es. The apostrophe in
the modern possessive marker is in fact an indicator of the e that is
"missing" from the Old English morphology. . . .
The 18th century explanation that the apostrophe might replace a genitive
pronoun, as in "the king's horse" being a shortened form of "the king, his
horse", is erroneous (a construction which actually occurs in German
dialects and has replaced the genitive there, together with the "of"
construction that also exists in English).
Ain't wikipedia great?
Max
I seem to remember reading somewhere that the "'s" was actually a
contraction
for "his." I think when a person who doesn't write makes a mark on a
document, we write undert it "John Doe his mark." This is the "his" that
is now
contracted into "'s." Any truth to this?
Peter Adams
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Content-Type: text/html; charset="US-ASCII"
Content-Transfer-Encoding: quoted-printable
<HTML><FONT FACE=3Darial,helvetica><HTML><FONT COLOR=3D"#000000"
FACE=3D"Gen=
eva" FAMILY=3D"SANSSERIF" SIZE=3D"2">I seem to remember reading somewhere
th=
at the "'s" was actually a contraction for "his." I think when a
pers=
on who doesn't write makes a mark on a document, we write undert it "John
Do=
e his mark." This is the "his" that is now contracted into
"'s." =
; Any truth to this?<BR>
<BR>
<BR>
<BR>
Peter Adams<BR>
</FONT><FONT COLOR=3D"#000000" FACE=3D"Geneva" FAMILY=3D"SANSSERIF"
SIZE=3D"=
2"></FONT></HTML>
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<p>
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