The two functions are normally mutually exclusive and the example you give certainly seems to function adverbially.  The Indirect Object is often paraphrased as an adverbial adjunct over against its normal function as a complement to the verb, and often adverbial complements are viewed as adverbial adjuncts, so confusion (or disagreement) may easily arise.  BTW, I think we are describing these observations -- not "explaining" them.  I have tried to explain the confusion by attaching traditional terms to the structures.  Many observers do not realize that their paraphrases are not exact and the meaning carried by the syntax is usually shifted in the process. 
 
Bruce

>>> Edward Vavra <[log in to unmask]> 11/28/06 10:21 AM >>>
    I was recently asked about "to me" in the sentence "Jack hit the ball to me." Is "to me" an adverbial prepositional phrase, or can it be considered a prepositional phrase that functions as an indirect object, i.e., as a noun? My question is--Do members of this list agree on one or the other explanation, or is their disagreement?
Thanks,
Ed
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