A useful quote.  For a long time it’s been a widespread view that these proscriptions came out of the 18th c. when in fact there has been a long tradition of inventing them.  Certainly some of them did come from 18th c. grammarians, like, for example, the prohibition on “ain’t”.  However, as David Mulroy shows in his War against Grammar, the prohibition against splitting infinitives is rather more recent, dating back only to the 1860s.  Arnold Zwicky, in a probing piece of grammatical history, shows that another favorite of prescriptivists, the prohibition against possessive antecedents, dates back only to the 1940s.  This one, by the way, prohibits sentences like

 

Mary’s book brought her great fame.

 

since Mary’s is possessive.  Granted, such structures can be ambiguous, as in

 

Mary’s mother saw her picture on TV.

 

and should be avoided in such cases on grounds of style and clarity, but the structure itself is not the problem; its inappropriate use is.  Both of these rules turn up on standardized tests, and the latter was on the SAT just a few years ago.  Zwicky ended up researching the Possessive Antecedent Prohibition because a highly prescriptive high school English teacher in Florida made an issue of it.  One of his students had score very well on the SAT but had missed a question in which a possessive antecedent was one of the multiple choice answers.  The test designers had intended another choice to be the incorrect sentence.  The teacher threatened to take ETS to court to change the answer and the student’s score.  ETS gave in.

 

Herb

 

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Ronald Sheen
Sent: Wednesday, September 26, 2007 8:58 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: The relics of prescriptivism was: Linguists' accusations of pedantry

 

In response to Nancy's question (see below), there are many Google sites which will give you the background to this,   Here's an extract from one:

 

The prescriptive approach, however, held sway for some two hundred years. It was based on fixed attitudes, on forms and rules derived from Latin and on exercises on the correction of sentences. Such exercises set up many of the shibboleths about usage that still remain (for at least some people) the essence of ‘correct’ grammar. The avoidance of prepositions at the end of sentences (as in ‘To whom did he give the book?’ rather than ‘Who did he give the book to?’) or the use of ‘It is I’ rather than ‘It is me’, or avoidance of the so-called ‘split infinitive’ (now immortalised in the Star Trek injunction ‘to boldly go’) are all examples of the kinds of usage taught to school pupils for many generations which still cause anxiety among people anxious to observe ‘correct’ grammar.

Most of these prescriptions, and their accompanying rules (‘It is wrong to split infinitives’) were based on analogy with Latin, even though English forms of language patterning are very different from Latin. For instance, English clearly has more than one word in the infinitive (‘to go’) unlike Latin, and therefore one is hardly ‘splitting’ the infinitive by introducing a related word. Also ‘It is I’ is based on the practice in Latin to have ‘nominative’ or Subject forms after the verb ‘to be’, even though English is very largely an uninflected language and does not normally indicate Objects by means of ‘accusative’ endings at all, far less make exceptions for the verb ‘to be’. The rule about avoidance of prepositions at the end of sentences, similarly, derived from a stylistic tendency in Latin to have verbs at the ends of sentences.

If, Nancy, having read this, you're thinking, 'Oh my God and I've been telling my students to say 'It is I' and not 'It is me'., you can take refuge in Michael Swan's Practical English Usage (p. 403).   He writes:

 

It is possible to use a subject form alone after 'be'  (e.g. It is I; It was he.) but this is extremely formal and is usually considered over-correct.

 

Hope this helps.

 

Ron.

----- Original Message -----

From: [log in to unmask]">Nancy Tuten

To: [log in to unmask]">[log in to unmask]

Sent: Tuesday, September 25, 2007 4:07 AM

Subject: Re: The relics of prescriptivism was: Linguists' accusations of pedantry

 

Ron,

 

I recognize “between you and I” as hypercorrection, but I am missing your point about “It is I.” Are you saying that using the nominative case as a subject complement after a linking verb(in this case, a “be” verb) is also hypercorrection? Since when? Thanks for bringing me up to speed.

 

Nancy

 

 

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Ronald Sheen
Sent: Wednesday, September 26, 2007 10:43 AM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: The relics of prescriptivism was: Linguists' accusations of pedantry

 

Herb's and Dick's apt comments amply show that it is not linguists who adopt a pedantic approach and this  because, among other things, they are all well aware of the ills brought about by the prescriptivist movement of the late 18th century and after.

 

If there is any misplaced pedantry in English language teaching today, it may well come from those who have not benefited from a history of the English language course and still think that, for example, the copula should be followed by the nominative case of pronouns (It is I) and that one should use 'I' after prepositions in phrases such as 'between you and I'.  It's quite remarkable how well-established in many people's minds have become these relics of prescriptivism.  In fact, I've heard quite a number of contemporary youth's role models use English in this way in interviews under the misplaced impression that they are speaking correctly.

 

There is a certain irony in all this for there are employers who may still think that these precriptivist relics are correct English and, therefore, look askance at prospective employees when they use 'me' correctly in the above examples or fail to obey the incorrect stricture to never split an infinitive

 

Ron Sheen

----- Original Message -----

From: [log in to unmask]">Veit, Richard

To: [log in to unmask]">[log in to unmask]

Sent: Monday, September 24, 2007 1:51 PM

Subject: Re: Linguists' accusations of pedantry

 

Like Herb, I have been waiting before responding to Edmond’s provocative post, and I’ll add a few observations to Herb’s thoughtful response.

 

I am both a linguist and a writing teacher, and I see no conflict between the two. In both roles I am eager for my students to master the conventions of standard English. Yes, I want them to know distinctions between “affect” and “effect” and between “lie” and “lay.” These are standard, useful distinctions, and literate speakers/writers make them. In both roles, I am also aware that all languages change over time and that change is determined by the usage of speakers/writers of the language and is not legislated by experts. For example, it is clear that “whom” is now rarely used even by educated speakers/writers, except immediately following a preposition. The loss of “whom” is almost certainly inevitable and irreversible; neither does this signify decay, nor is to be regretted. It is a typical instance of language change.

 

Like Herb, I know of no linguists who scorn writing teachers for teaching standard conventions. On the other hand, I observe (in both roles) that some usages that have often been proscribed in schools have no relation to the actual usage of literate speakers and writers (“Never begin a sentence with a conjunction” “Never split an infinitive” “Never end a sentence with a preposition”), and I tell my students they can be safely ignored.

 

It is the role of linguists to describe, not prescribe, language. If there is one distinction between my roles as linguist and writing teacher, I suppose it is that as a writing teacher I am free to make private subjective judgments about writing quality that I might not make purely as a linguist.

 

Dick Veit

 

________________________________

 

Richard Veit

Department of English

University of North Carolina Wilmington

 

 

-----Original Message-----
From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of STAHLKE, HERBERT F
Sent: Sunday, September 23, 2007 12:03 AM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: Linguists' accusations of pedantry

 

Ed,

 

I read your interesting posting yesterday and decided to give it a day

and then reread it.  I'm trying to understand what has spurred your

remarks so that I can get a better grasp on your argument.

 

You make the point that English speakers are dropping such lexical

contrasts and sensuous/sensual, etc.  As a linguist I have to declare

that I haven't read denunciations from my colleagues of teachers who

insist on teaching these contrasts.  Rather, much of it strikes me as an

important part of vocabulary building, a task that goes on well beyond

the BA.  I would correct in the writing of my students many misusages of

the sort you list.  While it is a truism that language changes and there

is little we can do about it, it also remains true that there is a

variant of English, call it standard if you will, that we expect

educated people to be able to read, write, and speak, at least in

appropriate social contexts.

 

I don't think all of these contrastive pairs have the same status.  The

"lie/lay" contrast is a contrast in transitivity.  Since the transitive

meaning ("lay") becomes clear as soon as the reader/hearer comes upon a

direct object, the redundant marking of transitivity means that the

distinction between lie/lay/lain(laid) and lay/laid/laid carries less

functional load and so is at risk of the forces of language change.  The

fact that in Modern English the strong past participle "lain" has

already been replaced by the weak past participle "laid" indicates that

this change has been in progress for some time.  In contrast, the

difference between the adjectives "disinterested" and "uninterested" is

not one that is redundantly marked in the structure of the sentence, and

so I expect careful users of English to make the distinction when it

needs to be made.  I don't know of an academic linguist who ignores the

conventions of Standard English in his or her own writing or in that of

their students (and I used "their" intentionally, since it goes back

about 400 years in this usage). 

 

You don't give a citation for your second quote below, "Educational

resistance to particular changes is futile," so I'm not sure what the

writer meant.  Is "particular" used in a generic sense "any particular"

or in a specific sense ("certain specified changes").  If the former,

the writer is clearly wrong.  My use of "his or her" above reflects a

socially driven change in usage.  Many of us continue to use "refute"

and "deny" to express the relevant distinction without having overtly

been taught it.  Even though I recognize the inexorableness of language

change, there are changes I resist and correct when I see them. I

personally can't abide "hone in on" for "home in on", a usage that goes

back only to the mid-20th c.

 

I do take exception to your claim that language undergoes decay.  I take

decay to mean irreversible entropy.  Signals undergo decay, as do all

other physical objects.  Words change, but when complexity is lost in

one area of a language, complex normally increases in another.  The

history of English illustrates this nicely.  Old English had a rich

system of case endings, six cases, on nouns, adjectives, and

determiners.  That system virtually disappeared in Middle English

because of normal, regular sound changes and some resulting analogical

changes.  One might say that case marking decayed during this period,

but what actually happened is that the relationships and meanings marked

by case endings in Old English came to be marked by word order and

prepositions in Middle and Modern English.  The complexity shifted from

morphology to syntax and lexis.  Languages have a necessary level of

complexity since they are a product of the complexity of human

cognition, but that complexity can show up in very different ways from

language to language.  The deny/refute distinction may well be one that

colloquial usage doesn't generally need and so is not made.  However,

more formal English does find it necessary to make the distinction, and

so learners are obligated to learn the distinction if they don't already

know it.  That's not so much a matter of language change or decay as of

difference in register.

 

I do agree with you rather strongly that Standard English has very

strong social class implications, many of them deleterious to those who

don't master that particular dialect.  A huge part of our educational

system is devoted to maintaining these class differences.

 

I hope I haven't misread you.

 

Herb

 

 

 

 

It is exceedingly common to find academic linguists who pour scorn on

teachers' attempts to correct students who confuse words, saying that it

is

pedantic to try and stem the inevitable onrush of language change.  For

example, they have in their sights anyone who would point out to their

students the semantic difference between such pairs as 'refute' and

'deny',

'sensuous' and 'sensual', 'uninterested' and 'disinterested'.  Another

pair

is the transitive verb 'lay' and the intransitive 'lie' -- over here in

England it used to be comparatively rare to hear someone say 'Lay on the

bed' or I've been laying here half an hour', instead of 'Lie on the bed'

or

'I've been lying here half an hour', but it is becoming increasingly

common

(I notice, for example, that Americans say 'the lay of the land' and not

'the lie of the land').

 

Some linguists, however, are straying from the scientific compound.  A

scientist should be examining the changes happening in the corpus of

words,

regardless of their causes.  Even a sociolinguist, interested in those

causes, does not take sides.  It is not for the  linguists to lay down

rules

about what should or should not be preserved.   If educators in some

society

find that it aids community feeling to inculcate a 'standard' speech and

are

concerned to produce the results they intend, that is just one of the

historical factors that a linguist would have to acknowledge, not a

feature

that he or she should be condemning out of hand as 'pedantic'.  They

have a

tendency to move from a statement like 'Change in language is a normal

process' (David Crystal, 'How Language Works, 2006, p. 483) which is

undeniable, to 'Educational resistance to particular changes is futile',

for

it might be perfectly 'normal' in a society to resist such changes.

They

say that one should not be using a word such as 'decay' of a language:

no,

not at the level of scientific inquiry, but yes, if one considers that,

say,

the distinction between 'refute' and 'deny' is valuable.  The continual

use

of 'refute' (which means to set out a would-be conclusive, carefully

argued

disproof of something) for 'deny' (which is merely to contradict

something

someone has said) might lead to a double loss -- the simultaneous

disappearance of the useful word 'deny' and of the meaning of 'refute',

for

which there is no adequate synonym.  Confusion of the two indicates

someone

who can have had no training of any kind in the rhetoric of argument,

surely

a necessity in a democracy.  Would it not be an instance of decay if

that

should come about?

 

I detect a neo-romantic ideology at work here:  its dream is of a

childhood

innocence as a delicate fruit the bloom of which must not be touched.

There

is also a mistaken class element that reads the attempt to teach

standard

English as elitist, interfering with the natural dialects of the

working-class.  I have found many students of working-class background

who

readily outstrip their middle-class schoolfellows in learning about

language, and end up being able to move from dialect to Standard English

and

back again without any loss of local colour in their pronunciation.

Among

their peers, of course, there are many who obstinately distort their

speech

to signal conformity with and loyalty to 'us' rather than 'them'.  Is

that

determination to be blessed as irresistible because it is 'normal'?

 

Edmond Wright

 

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