Linda,
I’m not sure that this is a processing issue. You’re
talking here about reference and about how pronouns are indexed. It is certainly
the case that we can’t use a to-infinitive as object of a preposition,
one of the arguments for not calling all infinitives noun phrases. The
form that the VP will take in a particular environment tends to be tightly
governed grammatically, so the more noun-like gerund will show up after the
preposition. There are other differences between the sentences as well.
In A it isn’t necessary that Miriam do the singing. She likes
listening to it but isn’t good at singing herself. B doesn’t
allow that interpretation. Miriam has to be interpreted as subject of “to
sing.” In A she’s not necessarily in the church choir I
direct. In B she is, unfortunately. The “it” can refer
to either of these meanings.
Herb
From: Assembly for the
Teaching of English Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Linda
Di Desidero
Sent: 2008-03-17 12:22
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: gerund vs infinitive
I think that the simple
explanation for the preference of A over B lies in the way in which hearers process the sentences. It
is much easier to substitute "singing" for "it" in A, but
not in B.
A: Miriam likes singing, but
she is not good at it.
Miriam likes singing, but she is not good at
singing.
B: Miriam likes to sing, but
she is not good at it.
*Miriam likes to sing, but she is not good at to
sing.
Linda
-----------------------------------------------------
Linda
Di Desidero, Ph.D.
Associate
Professor
Assistant
Academic Director of Writing
Communication,
Arts, and Humanities
University
of Maryland University College
3501
University Boulevard East
Adelphi,
MD 20783-8083
(240)
582-2830
(240)
582-2993 (fax)
From: Assembly for the Teaching of English
Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of STAHLKE, HERBERT
F
Sent: Sunday, March 16, 2008 11:35 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: gerund vs infinitive
Nancy,
I like the fact that you treat verbness as a matter of degree,
as, I assume, you would also treat nouns. And you’re right that a
gerund is more nouny than an infinitive. A lot of syntacticians would not
even treat the infinitive in “likes to sing” as a noun phrase,
simply as a tenseless VP serving as complement to “likes.”
The drill question, however, like so many drill questions, oversimplifies
matters. Reference doesn’t have to be simply to a noun; it can
be to a clause or even to a contextual factor. Consider a sentence like
Finish a direct quotation with a period and quotation marks, in
that order.
The referent of “that” is clearly the order in which
the two marks of punctuation are given, something that is not only not a noun
phrase but is arguably not even a grammatical structure. It is, rather,
an ordered pair, and it’s the order that counts. In the second
sentence in the drill, the referent of “that” is activity of
singing, not a particular word or grammatical structure. It might actually
be possible to come up with situations where one referent would make better
sense than the other.
Herb
From: Assembly for the
Teaching of English Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Nancy
Tuten
Sent: 2008-03-16 23:13
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: gerund vs infinitive
OK, why is it that I see my
mistakes right after I hit send?
Of course, both the
infinitive and the gerund follow the verb “likes,” not a
preposition. I have already sent a correction to Diane on that point, but the
question still remains: is one a better referent than the other, and, if so,
why?
Thanks,
Nancy
Nancy L. Tuten,
PhD
Professor of
English
Director of the
Writing-across-the-Curriculum Program
Columbia College
Columbia, South
Carolina
803-786-3706
From: Assembly for the Teaching of English
Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Nancy Tuten
Sent: Sunday, March 16, 2008 10:44 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: gerund vs infinitive
Dear
listers,
I
received an inquiry from someone today and would like to know how you would
have responded to it had it been sent to you. The original post is at the
bottom, and my response is above it.
Thanks
for your feedback—I always learn a great deal from you.
Nancy
L. Tuten, PhD
Professor
of English
Director
of the Writing-across-the-Curriculum Program
Columbia
College
Columbia,
South Carolina
803-786-3706
From: Tuten, Nancy [mailto:[log in to unmask]]
Sent: Sunday, March 16, 2008 7:11 PM
To: diane skinner
Cc: [log in to unmask]
Subject: RE: gerund vs infinitive?
Diane,
You raise a very interesting
question.
I suspect that the test writers
regard the gerund as a clearer referent because you can replace
“it” with the gerund and the sentence makes sense. We can say
"She is not good at singing," but we cannot say "she is
not good at to sing."
Nonetheless, as you point out,
both the gerund and the infinitive are functioning as nominals (objects of the
preposition “like”). One might, therefore, logically conclude that
either would qualify as a clear referent for a pronoun. Perhaps
infinitives, although they can function as nominals, retain more of their
“verb-ness” than gerunds, which quite strongly take on the quality
of a thing or an act—something one could place a determiner in front of:
“her singing,” “the singing,” etc. but not “her
to sing,” “the to sing.”
Thank you for attending our
session at the STD conference.
Best,
Nancy
Nancy Lewis Tuten, PhD
Professor of English
Director of the Writing Program
for the
Pearce Communication Center
Columbia College
1301 Columbia College Drive
Columbia, South Carolina 29203
USA
803-786-3706
-----Original Message-----
From: diane skinner [mailto:[log in to unmask]]
Sent: Saturday, March 15, 2008 3:12 PM
To: Tuten, Nancy
Subject: gerund vs infinitive?
Dear Professor Tuten,
I met you at the Sigma Tau
Delta Conference in your Grammar Panel.
I have a question for you.
In my writing center, during
grammar drills, a computer-generated
question asked,
"Which is the
clearest referent for the pronoun in the following sentences?"
A: Miriam likes singing, but
she is not good at it.
B: Miriam likes to sing, but
she is not good at it.
The answer was A, but no
explanation was given.
Could you please clarify this
answer since the verbs can be followed
by either an infinitive or a
gerund, and there will be virtually no
difference in the meaning of
the two sentences.
Does the infinitive "to
sing" act as an object for the verb "likes,"
or does it act as a verb to the
linking verb "likes"?
How can a distinction be made
between a gerund being nominative and an
infinitive being nominative?
Is this a special case because
of the word "likes"?
When you have the time, I would
sincerely appreciate a response.
Thank you.
Diane Skinner
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