Brad,

 

I don’t think you understand the nature of the tenses, what they signify in terms of time, and how that time is represented.

 

I’d be happy to work with you on that, if you’ll come by my office.

 

Best wishes,

 

Dr. Marshall Myers

 

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Brad Johnston
Sent: Saturday, November 29, 2008 9:28 AM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: Norman Mailer

 

Marshall.

 

I wasn't being cheeky with you (as someone suggested off-list). When one sees the word 'had', there are only four possibilities.

 

It's the past tense of the verb "to have".

It's used in the past perfect.

It's used in the subjunctive.

It's in error.

 

Mailer uses it in all four ways. The ones in the last category, 54 of 98 in his case, I called "in error".

 

If there is another possibility, I would certainly like to know what it is.

 

.brad.29nov08. 


~~~~~~~~~~~

On 11/19/08, Brad Johnston <[log in to unmask]> wrote:

 

Marshall,

 

I have wrecked my brain but have not yet thought of a valid reason why 'had' should appear other than in the three circumstances mentioned. Have you a suggestion?

 

.brad.20nov08.

 

~~~~~~~~~~~

On Tue, 11/18/08, Myers, Marshall <[log in to unmask]> wrote:

 

Brad,

 

How are they in “error”?

 

Marshall

 

~~~~~~~~~~~

 

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar

On Behalf Of Brad Johnston
Sent: Tuesday, November 18, 2008
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Norman Mailer

 

Of 300+ ATEGians, some few will be interested to know that in the first 21 pages of "The Executioner's Song", for which Norman Mailer won a Pulitzer in 1980, the word 'had' appears 98 times, of which 44 are used correctly as the past tense of the verb "to have", or in the past perfect, or in the subjunctive. The rest (54) are in error.


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