Patty and Scott,
I think Patty is on the right track. The noun clause is
the object of the prepositional verb “convince of” whereas “us”
is in the role of direct object. Something convinces someone of something.
The preposition is regularly omitted when its object is a (factive noun)
clause.
What is interesting is that the dative (or benefactive) appears with
the prepositional object of this same sort. However, the person to whom or
for whom the particular action of the verb is performed cannot be expressed
with a factive noun clause, so the confusion does not occur with the loss
of the preposition. The preposition is regularly omitted when its object
is a pronoun and/or it is placed before the object of the verb. This, of
course, is the so-called indirect object, and its surface structure is very
similar to the former case of an omitted preposition.
From: Assembly for the
Teaching of English Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Patricia
Lafayllve
Sent: Tuesday, March 03, 2009 7:56 AM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: "convinces us that..."?
A return question…
If we take the original sentence down a bit, we have <language
convinces us>. My eyes read <us> as the direct object, which
would then make <that a…explanation> the clause that answers the
question “What” (as in, what does the language convince us).
So…why would we take <us> as the indirect object?
-patty
From: Assembly for the
Teaching of English Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Scott
Woods
Sent: Tuesday, March 03, 2009 9:40 AM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: "convinces us that..."?
List, I have a few questions about the
following sentence: <Poe's language, however,
gradually convinces us that a purely rational explanation will not suffice,
however neatly it fits the external facts. > Would you take <us> as the
indirect object? Would you take the <that> clause after it as the
direct object? Is this analogous to <He showed us a monkey>? Does
<convince> always take a noun clause object when it takes an direct
object? In <He convinced us>, is <us> now the direct object, that
is, we were the convinced ones, or is there still an implied clausal direct
object leaving <us> as an indirect object? Thanks, Scott Woods |
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