"Yesterday, she had taken her younger brother, Jonah, for a walk down the beach."  (Nicholas Sparks)
 
We know that people sometimes put 'had' in front of past tense verbs and we know that when they try to put 'had' in front of an irregular past tense verb, 'had took' doesn't sound right so they use 'had taken' instead of 'took'. It's called 'forcing the iregular past participle'.
 
Why else did Sparks write what he did?
 
If anyone has a better explanation, let's hear it.

To join or leave this LISTSERV list, please visit the list's web interface at: http://listserv.muohio.edu/archives/ateg.html and select "Join or leave the list"

Visit ATEG's web site at http://ateg.org/