Brad,
 
Back-shifting, I believe, is a grammatical convention in English, to be applied logically for better understanding.  This rule, which I believe had its origin in Latin, appears to describe what has happened when some people write the past perfect (aspect) in indirect speech.  They appear to do this despite the fact that they will lose clarity if it is interpreted literally.  Logical or not, language happens.  Back-shifting seems to be a rule that many writers have followed.  This does, indeed, make it a convention.  Without a standard it is impossible to have inherent meaning.  Without anyone to enforce standards, the task of imposing any rule on writers by fiat is daunting.  I think any language teacher has to be encouraged to teach clarity of thought.  Rules, whatever their origin, ought never to be followed when they introduce more confusion into the language.  It is encouraging to see language police out there concerned with such errors in thinking.  But there are many misguided police.  I think that the "had-for-did" label can mislead.  This label describes a logical error in thinking as though it were a grammatical error in language.  It makes these two verb forms appear to be opposed.  There can be little doubt that the perfect aspect and the simple past are not opposites grammatically.  
 
Previous postings have cited many cases where changing a perfect aspect to a simple past tense disambiguates the probable interpretation.  There are also cases where clarifying the aspect could be seen as an over-correction.  The problem seems to be that for some writers the simple past is not marked for aspect -- it can be interpreted either way.  The back-shifting writer would write: "The President said he hoped the North Koreans would not do anything to escalate tensions in the region."  The shift of "will" to "would" clarifies what the President must have said: "I hope the North Koreans will not do anything to escalate tensions in the region."  An interpreter that thinks the aspect in the quote is imposed by the speaker and not the writer will, of course, be confused by such back-shifting.   
 
The use of the simple present to describe a timeless truth causes some consternation when back-shifted: "I told Stacy that Kim had blue eyes." If the past is not allowed to express a timeless truth (back-shifted), then, of course, the interpretation suggested that now the eyes are some other color is ready to hand.  However, if the interpreter simply projects this indirect speech into direct speech, such nonsense is excluded: "I told Stacy, 'Kim has blue eyes.'" Does this unmarked aspect imply now that Kim's eye color will change in the future?  The interpreter is free to think that; since such a phenomenon was not explicitly excluded by Stacy, it could happen! 
 
You  have caught me in a misstatement and over-generalization.  The practice of back-shifting an indirect quote was common in Latin.  I do not know whether the adoption of the perfect aspect by a writer and this situation was current in English before the influence of Latin during the Middle Ages.  I do know that the marking of the perfect in Old English was done by "be" as well as "have," depending on the nature of the verb.  In Latin it was always "be."
 
There is no formal model here at all.  The term "error" as defined mathematically cannot apply.  Errors in English grammar would be deviations from some standard.  But a scientific standard does not exist, so that the deviations must be from conventions.  The scientific grammars are models for the description of the language as it exists and is used.  Any standards established would be in accordance with some model.  My own grammar of English does not use the term "error," but speaks of avoiding misunderstanding and confusion.  The only kinds of error that some modern formal models are capable of describing are such as might be exemplified in the aphasic "Is grammatical this" for "This is grammatical."
 
Bruce
 
--- [log in to unmask] wrote:

From: Brad Johnston <[log in to unmask]>
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: had-for-did
Date: Tue, 30 Nov 2010 07:26:59 -0800

>> I have seen the "had-for-did" error described as an optional "back-shifting."
 
"Back-shifting" is a convention, if it's anything, and has no inherent meaning. (Surely it was propounded by a graduate student fulfilling a requirement to produce some number of words for a thesis.) The only change back-shifting can convey is to make correct into incorrect.
 
To write "The president said he hoped (in compliance with the convention) the North Koreans will not do anything to escalate tensions in the region", is to misrepresent, unless the president only hoped it prior to saying it and did not mean to imply that he would care in an hour or a week or a month.
 
He said he hopes the North Korean will not escalate. That's what he said and that's what he meant. He didn't want them to escalate yesterday and he doesn't want them to escalate today or tomorrow or the next day. Why do we let a meaningless rule interfere with complete and correct understanding? Back-shifting misleads. It should not be tolerated and it certainly should not be taught to an unsuspecting student, who feels an obligation to ingest whatever is thrown his way. As a professor of mine used to say, "scribble, scribble, scribble", i.e, the sound of students taking down the wisdom of their elders, however wanting it may be.
 
Sidebar: Rodney Huddleston and Geoffrey K. Pullum, illustrating back-shifting in "A Student's Introduction to English Grammar", c.2005, wrote, "I told Stacy that Kim had blue eyes" [but now they're brown]. Even if it's written by famous people, don't be buffaloed. (The words added to the quote are mine and show how ridiculous back-shifting can be.) The authors go on to explain that it is "often" optional, whatever that means except that they weren't able to make up their minds.
 
>> This, then, is taken as the origin of the "past perfect."
 
WHAT, then, is taken as the origin of the past perfect? Back-shifting gives rise to the past perfect? Hardly.
 
>> and some might allow only the present perfect to have a past perfect.
 
I wonder what this means. The past perfect is not the past of the present perfect.
 
Is there a formal model here somewhere, Bruce? We could outlaw back-shifting, I suppose. Then back-shifting would be an "error" by fiat, wouldn't it?
 
.myoneclubopener.brad.30nov10. 
 

From: Bruce Despain <[log in to unmask]>
To: [log in to unmask]
Sent: Sun, November 28, 2010
Subject: Re: had-for-did

Our discussion lately has maintained that grammar is a model of the structure of the language.  This model may be formal or informal.  If it is informal, then it tends to be subjective and may change from time to time and place to place.  When it is formal such changes through time and place are seen as objective and rigid differences in particular models of Grammar.  The study of structural models is a branch of mathematics.  One desideratum of mathematics is that as a tool of science it be formal and subject to the construction of a proof.  Proofs may contain errors but it is frustrating for a scientist to speak of an "error" without a formal model to relate it to.  I have seen the "had-for-did" error described as an optional "back-shifting."  This is related to the fact that sometimes quoted material may be direct and sometimes indirect.  An "error" may come in maintaining the tense of the material quoted: "You did not clean your room!"  Since the mother is being quoted indirectly, in some models the tense may be back-shifted to agree with the past tense of "complained."  This, then, is taken as the origin of the "past perfect."  Other models may make it correspond to any past-in-the-past tense, and some might allow only the present perfect to have a past perfect.  Some models might allow any of these descriptions.  However, it seems that only when it is to be made relative to a formal model can there be an error one way or the other. 

--- [log in to unmask] wrote:

From: Brad Johnston <[log in to unmask]>
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: had-for-did
Date: Sat, 27 Nov 2010

The items I quoted deal with (1) the most common 'had' error, 'had' in front of a past tense verb, e.g, Pinker, (2) 'had been' where 'was' or 'were' belong, e.g, Huddleston, and (3) forcing the irregular past participle, e.g, Osgood.
 
There is another, lesser error I call, 'had-for-did', for lack of a better term.
 
Barron's E-Z Grammar by Dan Mulvey, c.2009, gives as an illustration of the past perfect, "My mother complained that I had not cleaned my room''.
 
It should read, "My mother complained that I did not clean my room'.
 
.brr.had.27nov10.
 

Susan,
 
As long as Charles Osgood writes, in the Afterword to the 2000 Edition of Strunk & White, "Nor could they have imagined that thirty-eight years after they met, White would take this little gem of a textbook that Strunk had written for his students, polish it, expand it, and transform it into a classic".
 
As long as Otto Jesperson writes, "When they had been little they had watched each other's plates with hostile eyes".
 
As long as Steven Pinker writes, "Once they had left, many men went to take a look."
 
As long as Purdue's Online Writing Lab website illustrates the past perfect with, "John had hoped to have won the trophy".
 
As long as Ed Vavra illustrates the past perfect with, "They had given us visas for three months".
 
 
As long as The Little Gold Grammar Book illustrates the past perfect with, "Larry had studied Russian before he went to Moscow".
 
As long as Rodney Huddleston writes, "When Arthur had been a boy he had used to play football".
 
As long as the McGraw-Hill Handbook of English Grammar writes that, "The past perfect deals with an action that began at a more distant point in the past and ended at a more recent point in the past".
 
As long as these anomalies, and hundreds more like them, persist, what I am still doing, lo these many months later, is called "perseverance", not "perseveration", the former being admirable dedication, the latter being a mild form of crazy.
 
I elect to assume you were drinking, or had been drinking, when you hurled your insult.
 
.thatcrazyhadguy.brad.23nov10.
 
Sidebar: Pinker also writes in The Language Instinct, "The highest percentage of ungrammatical sentences was found in the proceedings of learned academic conferences" :)

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