Thank you for that link.  An excellent survey of the construction.  I was especially pleased that the author pointed out that the particle “to” is not really a part of the infinitive.  It did occur in OE, but it became much more frequent after English lost infinitive endings in Late Middle English.  But he’s right that the infinitive is the bare verb that occurs after modals and verbs like “make,” “let,” and verbs of sensory perception.

 

Herb

 

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Prof. Richard Grant WAU
Sent: Thursday, December 11, 2014 10:19 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: To Split an Infinitive and Beyond

 

Thanks, Herb.

 

I’ll have to take a look at Mulroy’s book. I must say, this comes as a bit of a shock after reading in so many texts that the antagonism goes back to the 18th c. decriers.

 

I have since read a short piece by Tom Freeman on the topic of split infinitives, and—to his knowledge—the earliest reaction against their use. While the article he cites may not be all out War Against Grammar, it’s certainly an opening (or early) shot of a battle. It dates back further than 1865 and has a sizeable list of examples of split infinitives from the 14th c. on.

 

Here’s the link: https://stroppyeditor.wordpress.com/2013/10/28/to-helpfully-clarify-to-better-communicate-a-history-of-the-split-infinitive/

 

Time to carefully revise some of the notes I use in class.

 

Richard

 

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Stahlke, Herbert
Sent: Thursday, December 11, 2014 9:40 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: You all probably know this, but what the heck . . .

 

David Mulroy, in his superb _War Against Grammar_ notes that the injunction against splitting infinitives dates back no farther than 1865.  I used to blame it on the 18th c. crowd too, until David pointed out the error of my ways.

 

Herb

 

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Prof. Richard Grant WAU
Sent: Thursday, December 11, 2014 9:35 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: You all probably know this, but what the heck . . .

 

Thanks for sharing that example, Nick.

 

To my knowledge, split infinitives have never been a problem of English grammar; rather, they are a matter of style—which, over the centuries, has shifted. The well-intentioned philologists in the 17th and 18th centuries observed the linguistic incongruities of English (lack of standardized/standardised spelling, changes in grammatical forms, large influxes of new lexical items, etc.) and wanted to reign in the changes that English was undergoing. By looking to Latin as an example of linguistic consistency (dead languages have that quality, which some evidently find redeeming), they tried to do the impossible: force inorganic changes onto English’s wonderfully unwieldy structure. No prepositions at the end of sentences, they declared (since that wasn’t done in Latin). No split infinitives they demanded (since that couldn’t be done in Latin).  

 

And here we are, a couple of centuries on, still mired in the mess—with many still trying to hold back the tide of natural usage/flexibility that English has allowed.

 

Richard

 

 

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Nick Carbone
Sent: Thursday, December 11, 2014 9:36 AM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: You all probably know this, but what the heck . . .

 

In article that praises George Curme's 100 year old “Origin and Force of the Split Infinitive” (Modern Language Notes 29 (2), 41–45), Geoffrey K. Pullum draws this gem from Curme:

Curme makes one observation that I had thought much more recent: that in some cases infinitives must be split (unless you simply abandon the attempt to use the adjunct). He cites an example containing the phrase sufficient to more than offset the losses. It cannot be recast as *sufficient more than to offset the losses or *sufficient to offset the losses more than: These are ungrammatical.

(from htttp://chronicle.com/blogs/linguafranca/2014/12/11/george-curme-21st-century-grammarian/)

I like a good split infinitive and sometimes, by way of exercise, ask students to as widely as they can, and keeping to the guideline that what they come up with has to be intelligible only, split infinitives with glee.

But this is the first time I've seen an example of one  where it had to be split.


--

nick.carbone at gmail dot com
http://ncarbone.blogspot.com

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