Hi everyone,
 
I have a question about the FCPA.  The FCPA prohibits payments to foreign government officials in order to influence a governmental decision. I know about the "rountine governmental action" exception.  But what if the payment is legal under local law?  Is the FCPA violated then? 
 
I am getting conflicting answers to this question from a textbook and other sources, and would appreciate your help! (I teach the topic tonight)
 
Thanks,
 
Robert
 
Robert C. Bird
Assistant Professor
University of Connecticut
email: [log in to unmask] <mailto:[log in to unmask]> 
View my research on my SSRN Author page: 
http://ssrn.com/author=56987 <http://ssrn.com/author=56987>  

________________________________

From: Academy of Legal Studies in Business (ALSB) Talk on behalf of Herron, Daniel J. Dr.
Sent: Tue 10/2/2007 9:16 AM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: HELP



$320 US

-----Original Message-----
From: Academy of Legal Studies in Business (ALSB) Talk [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Sally Gunz
Sent: Monday, October 01, 2007 4:45 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: HELP

I am doing a budget for a grant and need to know the ALSB annual conf.
registration fee this year.

Would someone please respond -- if you do it to the site then everyone
else will know not to reply!! Thanks.

Sally