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Subject:
From:
"Glauner, Jeff" <[log in to unmask]>
Reply To:
Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar <[log in to unmask]>
Date:
Wed, 16 May 2001 11:22:57 -0500
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Shun,

Traditionally and unfortunately for the truth, tense has been assigned as a
function of the verb.  In modern grammar, our problem is mainly one of
semantics.  If we limit the definition of tense to that part of the verb
that deals with time, we have to call time indicators in other constituents
of the sentence something else. And we do.  Those adverbial constructions
you refer to are called "adverbials of time."  It would, perhaps, be
illuminating to broaden the definition of tense to include time indicators
outside of the verb, but we have words to deal with time however it occurs
in the sentence.

A more critical problem for teaching time as a function of grammar is the
confusion we have in that traditional flawed assumption that the verb states
the time.  If we look closely at the verb in English, we realize that the
verb only provides two statements of time:  past and not past.  Even the
"not past" is not necessarily a statement of the alternatives to past (i.e.,
present or future).  It is merely the lack of being secured in the past.
Thus, we could say that our verb gives us only one tense:  past.  Of course,
since the English language is so flexible and mutable, even the past tense
might be in doubt.  Think, for instance, of the historical present, which is
firmly rooted in the past without grammatical reference to it(e.g., So Dad
and I are eating and in comes . . . ).

There is no conspiracy in English, Shun.  Our language merely leads us
around by the nose, and some of us like to try to make it do tricks for us.

Jeff Glauner
Associate Professor of English
Park University, Box 1303
8700 River Park Drive
Parkville MO 64152
[log in to unmask]
http://www.park.edu/jglauner/index.htm


-----Original Message-----
From: shun Tang [mailto:[log in to unmask]]
Sent: Wednesday, May 16, 2001 2:09 AM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: Is it a kind of ritual?


Dear Brock,

Patsi wrote: "If a period of time reaches up to or into the present, or
there is a possibility of continuation/repetition, you use present perfect."

My reply: Simple Present "I live in Hong Kong" is, so to speak, a period of
time reaches up to or into the present. (I do not suddenly live in here at
the present.) According to Patsi, I have to use "I have lived in Hong Kong"
instead. What would you or Patsi say?
Did you or Patsi ever eat chicken? Yes? If so, does the Simple Past indicate
"there is no possibility of continuation/repetition"? You will eat no more?
Ridiculous. Since everything we did in the past will very probably repeat in
the future, according to Patsi, the Simple Past will be used very very
scarcely or be extinct.
I can't find an iota of common sense in Patsi's careless note.

You see, the commonly-known rule for Present Perfect is fundamentally a
misleading guideline, designed for children or beginners in English. It
depends on the biggest conspiracy, or biggest fault, in grammars: avoiding a
group of time adverbs for the Present Perfect. In return, people wisely use
the confusing guideline to conclude that we don't need to explain the group
of neglected adverbs, because we have already explained the tense!!

You are right that I am much frustrated. I cannot break into this vicious
circle: hide away the adverbs, so that we may explain the tense. And then we
don't need the adverbs, because we have already explained the tense. Since
it is done collectively (by all grammars) and ingeniously, no one can break
in.

It is not up to me to provide solution for the family of 'IN THE PAST XX
YEARS', which have various meanings and cannot be simplified into a few
lines. As I have asked originally, is the avoidance a negligence or an
intended avoidance? Or is it a kind of ritual? This is all I want to know at
most.

I am waiting the first grammar to talk about these adverbs.

Shun
englishtense.com
====================
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under the subject question: "Is it a kind of ritual?"

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