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April 2004

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Subject:
From:
Johanna Rubba <[log in to unmask]>
Reply To:
Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar <[log in to unmask]>
Date:
Wed, 28 Apr 2004 17:21:59 -0700
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It's not the verb that is plural or singular, but the subject. The verb 
is marked to agree with the subject; the subject controls the verbal 
marking, not vice versa. This is just like requiring a pronoun to agree 
with its antecedent or an adjective to agree with its noun in Spanish. 
It's not the adjective that's plural; it's the word it modifies.

Many languages (e.g., Modern Aramaic) also incorporate object suffixes 
which will agree with the real-world objects in number (and gender, and 
case ...) It's quite a feat to cook up an Aramaic verb! Certain tense 
forms have to have subject and object markers that agree in person, 
number, gender, and case with their antecedents.

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
Johanna Rubba   Associate Professor, Linguistics
English Department, California Polytechnic State University
One Grand Avenue  • San Luis Obispo, CA 93407
Tel. (805)-756-2184  •  Fax: (805)-756-6374 • Dept. Phone.  756-2596
• E-mail: [log in to unmask] •      Home page: 
http://www.cla.calpoly.edu/~jrubba
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

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