Colleagues:

We keep on hearing here that there is a statute of limitations for 
laying criminal charges in the US.  Is this the case? And if so, what 
would be the rationale? I understand that time makes charges harder to 
prove but the onus remains with the prosecution (I won't say "crown"!) 
to prove and if they can't, they can't. But why, particularly with 
charges where there are known obstacles to bringing forward accusations, 
such as in sexual assault cases, would there be such an obstacle?

I raise this issue as we hear people say things about a certain 
gentleman from the US who is currently touring Canada as being 'innocent 
until proven guilty'. Of course that is correct in the true sense of the 
law. But it does allow for the inference that 'if he was guilty he would 
be charged' to come into the conversation. And if he can't be charged we 
will never know.

Sally