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Date: | Mon, 18 Nov 1996 16:57:18 CST |
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On Mon, 18 Nov 1996 13:37:30 -0800 Larry Beason said:
>Burkhard,
> But I think the
>concept of "quasi-modals" is a legitimate category even if--like all other
>categories of grammar--not leak-proof. A quasi-modal is (to take a stab at
>an informal definition) a group of words, normally two, that function as a
>auxillary verb.
The key part of this this definition is the term "function." My impression is
that "quasi-modals" are a category because they perform some of the semantic
functions of true modals: "have to" has a meaning very similar to "must" and
"be able to" has a meaning very similar to "can."
I think Burkhard makes a very good point that syntactically the quasi-
modals have none of the characteristics of true modals. This is very easy
to demonstrate. True modals, I believe, have inherent tense. Thus, they
do not take the agreement -s (a tense marker) and they never occur in
non-finite constructions.
1) I want to be able to explain grammar better to my students.
2) *I want to can explain grammar better to my students.
3) Having to leave early, the student sat by the door.
4) *Musting to leave early, the student sat by the door.
Bob Yates, Central Missouri State University, [log in to unmask]
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