I see the whole clause as the object of the preposition  "to"--and whom" 
doesn't even enter the discussion;it's "who" as the subject of  "had"--
 
Missed you at the ATEG meeting...
 
 
In a message dated 8/1/2012 10:03:08 A.M. Eastern Daylight Time,  
[log in to unmask] writes:

 
 
Help me with this again, please. I’ve raised this kind of  issue before, 
but I can’t remember your answers. Sorry. I would appreciate  your thoughts 
again. Thank you.  

From a statement regarding King Henry VIII from the  Wikipedia article “
English Reformation”:
“. . .he allowed himself to be  influenced by his advisors from whom he was 
never apart, by night or day; he  was thus susceptible to whoever had his 
ear.”

Am I to understand  “whoever” is correct because the verb “had” needs a 
subject, put better, the  clause needs a subject, and that that requirement 
is more important than the  preposition “to” requiring an object? 

This is the way I guide myself,  but I don’t think I should explain it this 
way to my ESL students. 

Martha G. 

PS  Hope the conference was enjoyable and  successful.

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