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August 2012

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Subject:
From:
Philip Bralich <[log in to unmask]>
Reply To:
Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar <[log in to unmask]>
Date:
Sat, 4 Aug 2012 08:41:04 -0700
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You are correct, and since the “whoever” is the subject of that embedded noun clause (nominative) and not the object (accusative), the “whom” is not allowed.  Had the wh-word been an object of the embedded noun clause, as in example (2) below, the “whom” would have been required.  

 

(1)

Here is the pattern of the sentence in question where the subject of the noun clause object of “to” is the head of the noun clause and “whom” is definitely precluded:

 

a)      He was susceptible to WHOEVER è 

b)      He was susceptible to WHOEVER came through the door

                                                                [Subj]        [V]       [PP]

(2)          

Here is the pattern of a similar sentence where the object of the embedded noun clause is the head and one where “whom” is required.  

 

a)      He was susceptible to WHOMEVER 

b)      He was susceptible to WHOMEVER John sent.

[Obj of V]    [Subj] [V]

 

Both (1a) and (2a)  are good standalone sentences, but the use of the relative pronoun presupposes the elision of a full clause like those in (1b) and (2b).

 

Sincerely,

 

Phil Bralich

 

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar [mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Wanda Van Goor
Sent: Saturday, August 04, 2012 6:55 AM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: subject of a clause vs object of a preposition

 

I see the whole clause as the object of the preposition "to"--and whom" doesn't even enter the discussion;it's "who" as the subject of "had"--

 

Missed you at the ATEG meeting...

 

In a message dated 8/1/2012 10:03:08 A.M. Eastern Daylight Time, [log in to unmask] writes:

Help me with this again, please. I’ve raised this kind of issue before, but I can’t remember your answers. Sorry. I would appreciate your thoughts again. Thank you. 


From a statement regarding King Henry VIII from the Wikipedia article “English Reformation”:
“. . .he allowed himself to be influenced by his advisors from whom he was never apart, by night or day; he was thus susceptible to whoever had his ear.”

Am I to understand “whoever” is correct because the verb “had” needs a subject, put better, the clause needs a subject, and that that requirement is more important than the preposition “to” requiring an object? 

This is the way I guide myself, but I don’t think I should explain it this way to my ESL students. 




Martha G. 

PS  Hope the conference was enjoyable and successful.

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