I was actually hoping that someone would ask, because it all seems so
bizarre to me, even after several years. There are moments when I
doubt my sanity; and this was one.
Background:
Picnic day is UC Davis' "open house" in April. Many departments put
on displays and demonstrations and the general public is invited. It
started as an agricultural school, so there are odd moments like the
sheep herding dog competition.
Some of the minority students on campus objected to the name, saying
that the word "picnic" referred to slave auctions (as in "pick
Nick"). I know that if this were the derivation of the term, no one
could use it in good conscience.
However, that does not seem to be the case. The etymology of the
word is not as clear as it might be, but it does not show up before
1800 as an English-speaking custom and the word shows up in France,
Germany, and Sweden earlier. It's an unlikely history for a word
referring to American slave auctions.
I wrote a letter to the editor of the student newspaper, pointing out
the derivation of the word, indicating it had nothing to do with
slavery (or even, in the first instances, with the US) and saying, as
gently as I could, that, since we were at an institution of higher
education, it behooved us to ascertain the accuracy of our
contentions, especially since this is something that is quite easy to
check.
The aftermath was not pretty. I got some very nasty e-mail (as well
as a few supporters, but fewer than you'd expect) and I think I was
put on some sort of informal "watch" list for some time. And the
students were not mollified: they still saw Picnic Day as a
"celebration of white culture." They were also not convinced,
preferring their version of the etymology.
So I succeeded in offending a number of people, getting myself into
trouble, and not convincing anyone.
I say again to Martha and Bob: be careful. It's not reality that
gets you, necessarily.
KMW
>Your response to Martha Kolln on "rule of thumb" has gotten me
>curious about "picnic day." How is that ppotentially offensive? I
>expect others on the list might be curious, too.
>
>----------
>From: Kathleen M. Ward
>Reply To: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar
>Sent: Thursday, August 26, 2004 9:32 AM
>To: [log in to unmask]
>Subject: Re: Rule of Thumb
>
>I've heard this and think it's probably folk etymology. The OED
>certainly has no evidence associating "rule of thumb" with
>wife-beating. The first citation in 1697--well past any "medieval"
>rules about sticks. And none of the citations has any reference that
>could be associated with wife beating. All relate to the notion of a
>rule that is based on practice rather than theory.
>
>However, my feeling is that enough people have heard of this folk
>etymology to be offended by it. When I used the term in passing in
>class, people objected. They may be wrong, but they are offended.
>And telling them that they are wrong does not make them less
>offended.
>
>Let me tell you about my defence the name of "Picnic Day" (a campus
>tradition) some time. It wasn't pretty.
>
>KMW
>
>
> >A reader of "Understanding English Grammar'" has asked Bob Funk, my
>>co-author, and me to delete all references to "rules of thumb" in our
>>book. It came as a surprise to both of us that the term was
>>offensive. It turns out, however, that the so-called rule has its
>>origin in the size of the stick that a husband could use when he beat
>>his wife! I'm not sure how long ago that rule applied in its
>>original state; and I'm also not convinced that anyone using the term
>>makes that connection. I do see the term frequently in books like
>>ours.
>>
>>I'd appreciate any opinions as to the merits of this objection.
>>
>>Martha
>>
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