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Subject:
From:
Linda Comerford <[log in to unmask]>
Reply To:
Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar <[log in to unmask]>
Date:
Sat, 9 Feb 2008 19:36:38 -0500
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So I guess we're now "done" with this topic?  Couldn't resist....
 
Linda Comerford
317.786.6404
[log in to unmask]
www.comerfordconsulting.com <http://www.comerfordconsulting.com/> 
 

  _____  

From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar
[mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Paul E. Doniger
Sent: Saturday, February 09, 2008 5:41 PM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: Re: done



"If it were done, when 'tis done, then 'twere well / It were done qucikly"
(Macbeth 1.7.1-2). The first 'done' clearly means 'finished'. If it's good
enough for Shakespeare, ... ! 

 

Also, there seems to be no prohibition regarding 'done' in Fowler's Modern
English Usage, which I believe is the usage bible (if there is such a
thing). I've never heard any complaints about this one before.

 

Paul D.



----- Original Message ----
From: Karl Hagen <[log in to unmask]>
To: [log in to unmask]
Sent: Saturday, February 9, 2008 2:43:06 PM
Subject: Re: done

We might equally well ask where this word rage against "done" =
"finished" comes from, since it doesn't appear to be based on any facts
about actual English usage.

"Done" has been used as an adjective in this sense since the 14th
century (originally with "have", and since the 18th century with "be").
It has been used by any number of canonical authors, including Dickens
and Twain.

The handful of usage books that claim it's a problem are simply perverse
and should be ignored. It's unquestionably standard.

Jane Saral wrote:
> I know that this issue has been addressed before, but I was just at dinner
> with someone who grows livid hearing the word "done" used to mean
> "finished."  I have never found it particularly objectionable, though I
> probably would not use it in really formal circumstances. (Still, I
> might...)  Anyway, where did the usage come from?  and when did it arise?
> Jane Saral
> Atlanta
> 
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