List,
  I found this sentence in Stevenson's The Strange Case of Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde:
   
  This hall, in which he was now left alone, was a pet fancy of his friend the doctor’s; 
   
  I see "the doctor's" as an appositive to friend, which is genitive showing the source of the fancy.  The appositive has been put in the same case, hence the appostrophe. Does my analysis look right?  Was Stevenson over Latinizing his English?  Is this the normal pattern?  Is it considered correct?  Would anyone on the list consider it an error in modern American usage? 
   
  Thanks,
  Scott Woods

       
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