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Date: | Tue, 3 Mar 2009 09:55:47 -0500 |
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A return question.
If we take the original sentence down a bit, we have <language convinces
us>. My eyes read <us> as the direct object, which would then make <that
a.explanation> the clause that answers the question "What" (as in, what does
the language convince us). So.why would we take <us> as the indirect
object?
-patty
_____
From: Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar
[mailto:[log in to unmask]] On Behalf Of Scott Woods
Sent: Tuesday, March 03, 2009 9:40 AM
To: [log in to unmask]
Subject: "convinces us that..."?
List,
I have a few questions about the following sentence:
<Poe's language, however, gradually convinces us that a purely rational
explanation will not suffice, however neatly it fits the external facts. >
Would you take <us> as the indirect object? Would you take the <that> clause
after it as the direct object? Is this analogous to <He showed us a monkey>?
Does <convince> always take a noun clause object when it takes an direct
object? In <He convinced us>, is <us> now the direct object, that is, we
were the convinced ones, or is there still an implied clausal direct object
leaving <us> as an indirect object?
Thanks,
Scott Woods
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