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July 2006

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Assembly for the Teaching of English Grammar <[log in to unmask]>
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Tue, 18 Jul 2006 22:42:31 +0200
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Dear All,


One of my student teachers has raised these questions. I'd like to hear your explanations.

I have a question to ask you.  I’ve asked several experienced teachers and no one seems to have an answer.  When teaching the present perfect and using the verb ‘to mean’ saying he has meant sounds very odd and I can’t imagine using this term, however, no one can give me an answer why.  Can you help ?

 

Another query which is posing a problem.  The difference between recently and lately.  How can I explain to a student that saying ‘I have lately read a book’ is incorrect.  Obviously latterly sounds better, but that’s rather cumbersome for 10th graders EFL.  Any ideas ?

 

Thanks very much in advance.

 Dalia Stein

Beit Berl College

Israel

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